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Criteria | Codes | Revision History medication regimens or failure to allied pain treatment center raid quality 10 mg maxalt accomplish the activities required for maintenance on the waiting list best pain medication for uti order 10 mg maxalt with visa. The transplant should only be offered for conditions in which cardiac transplant has proven clinical benefits pain disorder treatment plan discount maxalt 10 mg with mastercard. Active and/or progressive central nervous system disease excluding patients with embolic stroke who have recovered completely ohio valley pain treatment center order generic maxalt online. Age over 70 (Carefully selected patients over 70 years of age may be considered for cardiac transplantation) 3. Any other co-morbid condition that would limit life expectancy or quality of life. Kaiser Permanente contracts have included coverage for heart transplantation for several years. Members with coverage who meet the selection criteria are considered for transplantation. Back to Top Date Sent: 8/25/20 53 these criteria do not imply or guarantee approval. Back to Top Date Sent: 8/25/20 54 these criteria do not imply or guarantee approval. Evidence from recent studies suggests that achieving early control of rheumatoid arthritis minimizes joint destruction and increases long-term disease control. Methotrexate is one of the most effective and commonly prescribed drugs for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Frequent blood tests are required to monitor for the development of these adverse effects. It is estimated that approximately 30–40% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis taking methotrexate do not adequately respond to treatment (Danilia 2010, Goodman 2010). After administration and absorption, serum methotrexate levels fall rapidly as it is actively transported into a variety of cells. Methotrexate polyglutamate can be converted back to methotrexate to permit efflux from the cell. It has been suggested that if methotrexate polyglutamate levels were associated with adverse events or therapeutic response then knowledge of these levels could be used to help optimize methotrexate therapy in rheumatoid arthritis (Binker 2010, Danilia 2010, Goodman 2010). The first study included 192 subjects with rheumatoid arthritis who had been taking methotrexate for at least 3 months and had a stable dose for at least a month prior to study entry. There was no association between methotrexate polyglutamate concentration and adverse events (Stamp 2010). Two other studies also failed to find an association between methotrexate polyglutamate concentration and adverse events (Dervieux 2006, Angelis-Stoforidis 1999). After controlling for confounding factors, low methotrexate polyglutamate levels were associated with poor clinical status (high number of tender and swollen joints, physician’s assessment of disease activity, and the modified Health Assessment Questionnaire) (Dervieux 2005). Both of these studies along with two other observational studies also found that low methotrexate polyglutamate levels were associated with poor clinical status (Angelis-Stoforidis 1999, Dervieux 2004, Dervieux 2006, Hornung 2008). Conclusion: Analytic validity: There are a variety of rapid, sensitive, and accurate methods for the detection of methotrexate polyglutamate. Several observational studies were identified that examined the relationship between methotrexate polyglutamate levels and clinical status (clinical validity). No studies were identified that addressed the clinical utility of measuring methotrexate polyglutamate to aid in dosage optimization for rheumatoid arthritis patients. Methotrexate polyglutamate concentrations are not associated with disease control in rheumatoid arthritis patients receiving long-term methotrexate therapy. Pharmacogenetic and metabolite measurements are associated with clinical status in patient’s rheumatoid arthritis treated with methotrexate: results of a multicentered cross sectional observational study. Back to Top Date Sent: 8/25/20 56 these criteria do not imply or guarantee approval. There are two categories of air ambulance services: fixed wing (airplane) and rotary wing (helicopter) aircraft. The higher operational costs of the two types of aircraft are recognized with two distinct payment amounts for air ambulance mileage. Generally, transport by fixed wing air ambulance may be necessary because the beneficiary’s condition requires rapid transport to a treatment facility, and either great distances or other obstacles. Generally, transport by rotary wing air ambulance may be necessary because the beneficiary’s condition requires rapid transport to a treatment facility, and either great distances or other obstacles. The point of pickup is inaccessible by ground vehicle (this condition could be met in Hawaii, Alaska, and in other remote or sparsely populated areas. Transport is only to the nearest acute care facility equipped to provide the appropriate treatment for the patient’s condition. Medical Reasonableness Medical reasonableness is only established when the beneficiary’s condition is such that the time needed to transport a beneficiary by ground, or the instability of transportation by ground, poses a threat to the beneficiary’s survival or seriously endangers the beneficiary’s health. Following is an advisory list of examples of cases for which air ambulance could be justified. The list is not inclusive of all situations that justify air transportation, nor is it intended to justify air transportation in all locales in the circumstances listed. Coverage is not available for transport from a hospital capable of treating the patient because the patient and/or the patient’s family prefer a specific hospital or physician. Back to Top Date Sent: 8/25/20 59 these criteria do not imply or guarantee approval. If requesting this service, please send the following documentation to support medical necessity: • Last 6 months of clinical notes from requesting provider &/or specialist (orthopedics/podiatry) the following information was used in the development of this document and is provided as background only. Background the knee meniscus is a fibrocartilaginous crescent-shaped structure that plays an important part in the biomechanics of the joint. It functions as load bearing, shock absorption, stabilization of the joint as well as lubrication. Partial or complete loss of the meniscus alters the joint function and predisposes the articular cartilage to degenerative changes. More recently, repair of the meniscus has become the standard treatment for tears. Meniscectomy leads to deterioration of the articular cartilage and narrowing of the knee joint. Criteria | Codes | Revision History the first meniscal allograft was performed in 1984 by Milachowski and Wirth. These include meniscus prosthesis, scaffolds, genetically engineered tissue, meniscus xenografts, meniscus autografts, and meniscus allografts. Fresh menisci are thought to be superior as the architecture is unchanged, and chondrocytes and other cells are still viable. The Lyophilized and freeze-dried menisci can be stored for a long time but have the disadvantage of the decay of ground substance and destruction of the architecture in the freeze-dried menisci, and shrinkage in the lyophilized. Cryopreservation may maintain fibrochondrocytes for 2-4 weeks but is very expensive in cost. Sizing of the meniscus before transplantation is also important to have a good geometrical fit in the joint, and a proper function. Some authors believe that a knee with minimal or no arthritic changes is the ideal for transplantation, and others indicate it only for knees with degenerative changes. It is contraindicated in patients with severe degenerative changes in the joint, instability, malalignment, and history of infection of the joint. The prospective study, the two-case series appraised, as well as the other published case series and reports were small, included heterogeneous patients at different ages, and with different indications for the meniscal transplantation. The duration from the meniscectomy to the transplant varied among patients from few months to more than 30 years. Overall the results of the studies show that meniscal transplantation may alleviate pain and improve the knee function. However, there is insufficient data to determine which patients will benefit most, and if benefits observed would be maintained over time, and whether the transplantation will prevent degenerative changes from occurring within the joint. One prospective cohort study and several case series reports with limited number of patients were identified. Selection for the case series reports for review was based on the population size, duration of follow-up, and/or primary outcomes. See Evidence Table the use of allogeneic meniscal transplant in the treatment of knee pain and swelling does not meet the Kaiser Permanente Medical Technology Assessment Criteria.

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These extravillous cytotrophoblast cells are of particular interest because they are characterized by remarkable invasive potential (168 treatment guidelines for pain cost of maxalt,169) pain treatment for sciatica purchase maxalt 10mg with visa. These cells move from the tips of the anchoring villae of the human placenta pain treatment and research cheap maxalt 10mg line, invading deeply into the maternal decidua treating pain in dogs with aspirin order 10mg maxalt fast delivery, and can replace cells within the walls of decidual arterial vessels (168–170). Regulation of Decidual Immune Cells the characteristics of the interactions between decidual immune effector cells and the implanting fetus may be determined by factors other than those already mentioned. Local regulation of the cells that populate the human decidua will further modify the effects of selection, maintenance, and homing, as well as the distinctive characteristics of antigen presentation at the maternal–fetal interface. As might be predicted, these regulatory effects are often targets for investigative efforts, because they may offer more direct insight into potential therapies for immune-mediated disorders of pregnancy maintenance. Three such regulatory mechanisms will be discussed here: (i) alterations in T-helper cell phenotypes, (ii) reproductive hormones and immunosuppression, and (iii) tryptophan metabolism. These cells are important in sustaining the inflammatory response and are closely associated with several autoimmune diseases (193). As mentioned previously, the human endometrium and decidua are replete with immune and inflammatory cells capable of cytokine secretion (194–196). Cytokines may affect reproductive events either directly or indirectly, depending on the specific cytokines secreted, their concentrations, and the differentiation stage of potential reproductive target tissues. Fewer than 3% of women with normal reproductive histories demonstrate these responses (199,201). Methods for the documentation of cytokine dysregulation among recurrent pregnancy loss patients also varies among investigators; some groups have confirmed this abnormality within the endometrium or among immune cells isolated from the decidua of these patients (205–208). Whether peripheral cytokine levels reflect T-helper cell dysregulation at the maternal–fetal interface and whether this dysregulation affects peripheral as well as local immune response during pregnancy remains controversial (212,213). Finally, as with all immune theories, there seems to be significant redundancy in the necessity for particular cytokines and soluble immunoregulatory factors at the site of implantation. To date, animal models with directed gene deletions have shown few of these factors to be absolutely essential to pregnancy maintenance. Although many mechanisms are aimed at avoiding maternal immune recognition of the implanting fetus, research in both humans and animals indicates that immune responses to fetal antigens can be detected (216–218). Thus, the regulation of this response at the maternal–fetal interface may be critical. The concept that successful pregnancy requires some form of generalized suppression of maternal immune response is supported by reports that failure to downregulate maternal responses to recall antigens, such as tetanus toxoid and influenza, is associated with poor pregnancy outcome among recurrent pregnancy loss patients (219). Reproductive hormones have dramatic effects on peripheral cell– mediated immunity, as demonstrated by well-documented and notable gender differences in immune responsiveness (220). The levels of these potentially immunosuppressive hormones are quite elevated in pregnant women. The fact that the levels of these hormones at the maternal–fetal interface may be far above those in the maternal circulation during pregnancy may explain an apparent inconsistency: overall immune responsiveness during pregnancy appears to change little, while local suppression at the maternal–fetal interface may be vital (221). It has been suggested that the immunosuppressive effects of progesterone within the reproductive tract are at least partially responsible for the maintenance of the semiallogeneic implanting fetus (222). In vitro studies have shown that progesterone mediates its suppression of T-cell effector function by altering membrane-resident potassium channels and cell membrane depolarization. This action, in turn, affects intracellular calcium signaling cascades and gene expression and may be mediated by nonclassical steroid receptors or may not involve a receptor at all (223–225). Levels of estrogen also rise dramatically during pregnancy, and attention has focused on the role of estrogen in immune modulation. A group of animal studies showed that estrogens improve immune responses in males after significant trauma and hemorrhage, suppress cell-mediated immunity after thermal injury, and protect against chronic renal allograft rejection (229–231). Further support lies in studies demonstrating that hamsters fed diets high in tryptophan have increased rates of fetal wastage (237). Endometriosis is the growth of both endometrial glands and stroma outside of the intrauterine cavity. Although associations between the development of endometriosis and immunologic abnormalities are now being defined, the link between endometriosis and recurrent pregnancy loss remains contentious (240,241). The occurrence of recurrent pregnancy loss in the presence of endometriosis certainly would involve the interaction of complex mechanisms, some of which may involve cellular or humoral immune dysfunction (242,243). Humoral Immune Mechanisms Humoral responses to pregnancy-specific antigens exist, and patients with recurrent pregnancy loss can display altered humoral responses to endometrial and trophoblast antigens (Table 33. Historically, these immunoglobulin-G (IgG) and IgM antibodies were considered as directed against negatively charged phospholipids. Those phospholipids most often implicated in recurrent pregnancy loss are cardiolipin and phosphatidylserine. However, antiphospholipid antibodies often are directed against a protein cofactor, fi2 glycoprotein 1, which assists antibody association with the phospholipid (245–249). The association of these antiphospholipid antibodies with thrombotic complications has been termed the antiphospholipid syndrome, and although many of these complications are systemic, some are pregnancy specific—spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, intrauterine growth retardation, and preeclampsia (250,251). For a patient to be diagnosed with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, one or more clinical and one or more laboratory criteria must be present: Clinical One or more confirmed episode of vascular thrombosis of any type: Venous Arterial Small vessel Pregnancy complications: Three or more consecutive spontaneous pregnancy losses at less than 10 weeks of gestation with exclusion of maternal anatomic and hormonal abnormalities and exclusion of paternal and maternal chromosomal abnormalities One or more unexplained deaths of a morphologically normal fetus at or beyond 10 weeks of gestation (normal fetal morphology documented by ultrasound or direct examination of the fetus) One or more premature births of a morphologically normal neonate at or before 34 weeks of gestation secondary to severe preeclampsia or placental insufficiency Laboratory Testing must be positive on two or more occasions with evaluations 12 or more weeksapart: Positive plasma levels of anticardiolipin antibodies of the IgG or IgM isotype at medium to high levels Positive plasma levels of lupus anticoagulant Anti-fi2 glycoprotein-1 antibodies of the IgG or IgM isotype in titers greater than the 99th percentile the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies (anticardiolipin or lupus anticoagulant) and anti-fi2 glycoprotein-1 antibodies during pregnancy is a major risk factor for an adverse pregnancy outcome (245,246,254). In a large series of couples with recurrent abortion, the incidence of the antiphospholipid syndrome was between 3% and 5% (112). The presence of anticardiolipin antibodies among patients with known systemic lupus erythematosus portends less favorable pregnancy outcomes (255). A number of mechanisms have been proposed by which antiphospholipid antibodies might mediate pregnancy loss (256). Antibodies against phospholipids could increase thromboxane and decrease prostacyclin synthesis within placental vessels. The resultant prothrombotic environment could promote vascular constriction, platelet adhesion, and placental infarction (257–259). Alternatively, in vitro evidence from trophoblast cell lines indicates that IgM action against phosphatidylserine inhibits formation of syncytial trophoblast (260). One study demonstrated that both extravillous cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast cells synthesize fi2 glycoprotein-1, the essential cofactor for antiphospholipid antibody binding (261). Although it gives insight into pathophysiology, the prognostic value of serum levels of specific antibodies against fi2 glycoprotein-1 with respect to pregnancy outcome among recurrent pregnancy loss patients is contentious and may be poorer than that of standard anticardiolipin antibodies (262–264). Some have proposed that sera from antibody positive recurrent pregnancy loss patients is particularly adept at inhibiting trophoblast adhesion to endothelial cells in vitro (265). Others noted rapid development of atherosclerosis in the decidual spiral arteries of patients who test positive for antiphospholipid antibodies (266). Finally, still others have demonstrated that levels of the placental antithrombotic molecule—annexin V—are reduced within the placental villa from those women with recurrent pregnancy loss who are antiphospholipid antibody positive (267). However, placental pathologic evidence supporting causal involvement of the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome in pregnancy loss often is equivocal. The characteristic lesions for this syndrome (placental infarction, abruption, and hemorrhage) are typically missing in women with antiphospholipid antibodies, and these same pathologic lesions can be found in placentae from women with recurrent abortion who do not have biochemical evidence of antiphospholipid antibodies (256,268–270). Although the data remain somewhat controversial, several investigators demonstrated an increased prevalence of these antibodies among women with a history of recurrent pregnancy loss, even in the absence of thyroid endocrinologic abnormalities (98–199,102,103,271–273). Other antibody-mediated mechanisms for recurrent abortion have been proposed, including antisperm and antitrophoblast antibodies, as well as blocking antibody deficiency. Although each hypothesis has minimal relevance to recurrent pregnancy loss, their discussion is warranted because therapies aimed at these disorders persist. Historically, the blocking antibody deficiency hypothesis has received the most attention (112,181). This hypothesis is based on a supposition that blocking factors (presumably antibodies) were required to prevent a maternal, cell-mediated, antifetal immune response that was believed to occur in all pregnancies. It was therefore proposed that, in the absence of these blocking antibodies, abortion occurred (273). For instance, maternal hyporesponsiveness in mixed lymphocyte culture with paternal stimulator cells was originally proposed to identify women with deficient blocking activity (273). These reports were of limited sample size, were retrospective in nature, and lacked populationbased controls. Further evidence refuting the blocking antibody hypothesis for recurrent abortion comes from reports of successful pregnancies among women who do not produce serum factors capable of mixed lymphocyte culture inhibition and also among women who do not produce antipaternal cytotoxic antibodies (273,274). Those mixed lymphocyte culture results that demonstrate hyporesponsiveness in some recurrent pregnancy loss patients are now believed to represent the effect of the pregnancy loss rather than the cause of recurrent abortion (217,273–275). It can be found on a wide variety of cells, thus explaining the cross-reactive nature of the original rabbit antisera. It is important to conclude this in-depth discussion of the immune-mediated mechanisms of isolated and recurrent pregnancy loss by suggesting that pregnancy may not require an intact maternal immune system.

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A 25% survival rate can be expected in patients treated with radiation for a postsurgical recurrence (162) pain management treatment center wi buy maxalt canada. Radiation Retreatment Retreatment of recurrent pelvic disease by means of radiotherapy with curative intent is confined to pain treatment for tennis elbow order maxalt 10 mg online patients who had suboptimal or incomplete primary therapy neck pain treatment kerala discount maxalt 10 mg free shipping. This may allow the radiotherapist to treatment for elbow pain from weightlifting purchase maxalt 10 mg fast delivery deliver curative doses of radiation to the tumor. The proximity of the bladder and rectum to the cancer and the relative sensitivity of these organs to radiation injury are the major deterrents to retreatment with radiation. The insertion of multiple interstitial radiation sources into locally recurrent cancer through a perineal template may help overcome these dosimetric considerations (173,183). The fistula rates are high, and those consequences must be considered before interstitial therapy is initiated. For patients considered curable with interstitial implant therapy, pelvic exenteration is a better treatment choice. Palliative radiotherapy can be given to patients with localized metastatic lesions that are deemed incurable. Painful bony metastases, central nervous system lesions, and severe urologic or vena caval obstructions are specific indications. Surgical Therapy Surgical therapy for postirradiation recurrence is limited to patients with central pelvic disease. A few carefully selected patients with small-volume disease limited to the cervix may be treated with an extrafascial or radical hysterectomy. However, the difficulty of assessing tumor volume and the 30% to 50% rate of serious urinary complications in these previously irradiated patients have led most gynecologic oncologists to recommend pelvic exenteration as a last chance for cure (184,185). Exenteration There are three types of exenterative procedures: (i) an anterior exenteration (removal of the bladder, vagina, cervix, and uterus), (ii) a posterior exenteration (removal of the rectum, vagina, cervix, and uterus), and (iii) a total exenteration (removal of both bladder and rectum with the vagina, cervix, and uterus (Fig. A total exenteration that includes a large perineal phase includes the entire rectum and leaves the patient with a permanent colostomy and a urinary conduit (infralevator). In selected patients, a total exenteration may take place above the levator muscle (supralevator), leaving a rectal stump that may be anastomosed to the sigmoid, thus avoiding a permanent colostomy. Preoperative Evaluation and Patient Selection It is imperative to search for metastatic disease before undergoing an exenteration. The presence of metastatic disease in this setting is considered a contraindication to exenterative procedures. A random biopsy of nonsuspicious supraclavicular lymph nodes is advocated by some clinicians but is not routinely practiced (145,186). If a positive cytologic diagnosis is obtained, it will obviate the need for exploratory laparotomy. Extension of the tumor to the pelvic sidewall is a contraindication to exenteration; however, this may be difficult for even the most experienced examiner to determine because of radiation fibrosis. If any question of resectability arises, exploratory laparotomy and parametrial biopsies should be offered (187–190). The clinical triad of unilateral leg edema, sciatic pain, and ureteral obstruction is nearly always pathognomonic of unresectable disease on the pelvic sidewall. Total parenteral nutrition may be necessary to place the patient in an anabolic state for optimal healing. A bowel preparation, preoperative antibiotic administration, and prophylaxis for deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin or pneumatic calf compression should be undertaken (191). Surgical mortality increases with age, and the operation should rarely be considered in a patient who is older than 70 years. Anterior Exenteration Candidates for anterior exenteration are those in whom the disease is limited to the cervix and anterior portion of the upper vagina. Proctoscopic examination should be performed because a positive finding would mandate a total exenteration. However, a negative proctoscopic examination finding does not exclude disease in the rectal muscularis, and findings at laparotomy still must be considered. The presence of disease in the posterior vaginal mucosa directly over the rectum mandates removal of the underlying rectum. Posterior Exenteration A posterior exenteration is rarely performed for recurrent cervical cancer. It is indicated, however, for the patient with an isolated posterior vaginal recurrence in which dissection of the ureters through the cardinal ligaments will not be necessary. Total Exenteration Total exenteration with a large perineal phase is indicated when the disease extends to the lower part of the vagina (Fig. Because distal vaginal lymphatics may empty into the nodal basins of the inguinal region, these nodes should be carefully evaluated preoperatively. A supralevator total exenteration with low rectal anastomosis is indicated in the patient whose disease is confined to the upper vagina and cervix (192,193). Samples from margins of the rectal edge should be obtained for frozensection evaluation because occult metastases to the muscularis may occur. The development of techniques to establish continent urinary diversion help improve a woman’s physical appearance after exenteration (194–196). When both a rectal anastomosis and a continent diversion are performed, the patient will not have a permanent external appliance. Every effort should be made to create a neovagina simultaneously with the exenteration (197). This procedure helps in the reconstruction of the pelvic floor after extirpation of the pelvic viscera. Regardless of whether a neovagina is constructed, it is desirable to mobilize the omentum on the left gastroepiploic artery to create a new pelvic floor. Surgical mortality from exenterative procedures has steadily decreased to less than 10%. Common causes of postoperative death are sepsis, pulmonary thromboembolism, and hemorrhage. Fistulas of the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract are serious surgical complications, with a 30% to 40% mortality rate despite attempts at surgical repair. The risk for fistula formation is decreased if nonirradiated segments of bowel are used for formation of the urinary conduit (191). The 5-year survival rate is 33% to 60% for patients undergoing anterior exenteration and 20% to 46% for those undergoing total exenteration (187–197). Survival rates are worse for patients with recurrent disease (larger than 3 cm), invasion into the bladder, positive pelvic lymph nodes, and recurrence diagnosed within 1 year after radiotherapy (190). The 5-year survival rate of patients with positive pelvic lymph nodes is less than 5%; thus, the performance of an extensive lymphadenectomy in the irradiated field is not warranted. Discontinuation of the procedure is advisable if any nodes are positive for metastatic cancer. Patients who have any disease in the peritoneal cavity have no chance of survival. Laterally Extended Endopelvic Resection Locally recurrent cervical cancer in a previously irradiated field is associated with a dismal prognosis. Exenterative therapy traditionally was reserved for the highly select patient with centrally recurrent disease, a selection criteria that excludes most patients with recurrence. Extension of the surgical plane allows for resection of lateral tumors with a negative margin. Experience with it is limited to one center, which reports as high as a 62% recurrence-free survival, but as high as 70% moderate to severe morbidity (198). Chemotherapy for Recurrent Cervical Cancer Recurrent cervical cancer is not considered curable with chemotherapy. The delivery of chemotherapy to recurrent tumor in a prior radiated field may be compromised because of altered blood supply caused by radiation. Topotecan and cisplatin had response rates of 15% to 20%, with a median duration of 6 to 9 months (199). Many other agents showed activity against cervical cancer and may be used in attempt to help control symptoms. Most responses are partial; complete responses are unusual and limited to patients with chest metastases in whom the dose of drug delivered to the disease is stronger than that delivered to the fibrotic postirradiated pelvis (200,201).

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Those persons who have had one serious depressive episode have approximately a 50 per cent risk of experiencing a second episode pain treatment for neuropathy order maxalt 10 mg. It should be noted that even with good responses pain treatment dvt buy discount maxalt 10 mg line, there is usually some impairment of cognition and decision-making ability which may impair performance in an emergency valley pain treatment center phoenix purchase maxalt paypal, primarily by increasing the response time pain treatment buy genuine maxalt on-line. The pronouncement of “being well” may refer only to relative improvement in comparison with the untreated state. There is evidence that recurrence is most likely to happen during the first two years. Ordinarily pilots should not be allowed to return to flying unless they have been off medication for at least some months after having returned to their euthymic state of health. Mania is an unpredictably recurring disorder, which presents with grandiosity, increased energy, euphoria, reduced sleep, distractibility and poor judgement. It may progress to overt delusions with marked irritability, anger and danger to self and to others. Although this condition may respond moderately well to mood stabilizing agents, the risk of recurrence is significant and the degree of disruption of performance too great to allow a return to flying or air traffic control duties. When the episode of mania has remitted, the patient often feels as well as before and the reason why he should not assume or resume an aviation career requires a great deal of explanation. However, the significant risk of recurrence even with mood stabilizing medication, along with the degree of disruption of mental function when there is a recurrence, precludes an aviation career. It usually includes expansive mood (may progress to euphoria), heightened sense of self (may progress to grandiosity), decreased need for sleep, increased energy, and distractibility. Persons with hypomanic episodes have unstable moods and are prone to developing frank manic episodes and/or depressions. These disorders tend to occur in early adulthood (primarily in the 20’s), often after a prodromal stage of several years. The perceptual disturbances most commonly take the form of auditory hallucinations, but may also involve visual or somatic hallucinations. The presence of delusions, often persecutory, along with the hallucinations may be quite pervasive in the life of the sufferer, who may become perplexed and experience marked disturbance of affect, drive, interest, memory and concentration. The introduction of the newer anti-psychotic medicines, which often lead to better medication compliance, have resulted in better outcome for the schizophrenias. Nevertheless, the schizophrenic disorders remain incompatible with aviation safety. Usually the delusions are relatively restricted and may follow only one theme, such as delusions of infidelity. The risk associated with a delusional disorder is that the person will act out behaviour to deal with the delusional belief without consideration of the effect of such action or behaviour on others. This disorder is usually secondary to severe external stressors (“brief reactive psychosis”). If there is stability for at least one year without the need for anti-psychotic medication, this disorder need not preclude medical certification. Preoccupation with symptoms, a sense of anxiety, and the impaired cognition associated with many of these disorders would usually, at least temporarily, be disqualifying. Response to treatment, side effects of medications, and the risk of recurrence of symptoms are determining factors in the evaluation. Since many of these disorders are of a chronic nature, it is important that in a new applicant, the natural history of his disorder should be part of the evaluation. Unless the disorder is likely to be resolved without long-term use of medication, an aviation career should be discouraged. Persons who undergo lengthy periods of stress frequently use alcohol and/or other psychoactive substances as a modifying agent. These behavioural patterns may cause the person surprisingly little discomfort but are usually a source of distress to others. Because of the maladaptive quality of these personalities, they rarely fit well into society. They either marginalize themselves or are in various forms of conflict with their environment. People whose behavioural patterns are less than optimal also usually recognize the problem and have the ability to make changes that improve their situation. Except in rare circumstances, persons with personality disorders should not be allowed to work in the aviation environment. The inability to control an impulse when the adverse consequences are obvious is a major concern in someone accepting the responsibilities of a safety-sensitive function within aviation. Moreover, persons with these disorders are also usually at odds with their environment, which is an added stressor and may lead to further inability to focus on the task at hand and detract from the attention required in aviation. These persons may have significant conflicts with their environment, leading to further difficulties, which may become an impediment for them to hold an aviation licence. The resultant symptoms depend on the causal agent, the part(s) of the brain affected, the previous health of the brain, and the current environment of the person. The examiner may not always detect such a disorder unless he is aware of the possibility that the disorder may be present. The most common result of an organic insult to the brain is delirium or dementia, but anxiety, depression and behavioural changes may also have organic causes. An organic insult to the brain may result in reduced functioning, and once the insult is removed, there may still be concern about the continued optimal functioning of the brain. Return to the previous level of functioning may be swift once the causal agent is removed. If the delirium was caused by the use of alcohol or another psychoactive substance, a more intensive investigation should be undertaken. The operational aspects of cognitive incapacitation are further considered in Part I, Chapter 3. The most common dementia is Alzheimer’s Disease, which usually has a slow, insidious onset after age 65 to 70. It is not unusual that older persons with disturbed cognition are given a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s Disease without the benefit of a full psychiatric examination. It is imperative to rule out the presence of a depressive illness or indeed any reversible medical conditions, which may present with symptoms of dementia before deciding on a diagnosis. With older aircrew, the medical examiner should be aware of the possible presence of early dementia and at least carry out some rudimentary tests of cognition. If this examination gives any evidence of deterioration, there would be reason to embark on more extensive medical and psychological investigations. Individuals with insomnia become tense, anxious, preoccupied with sleep, and frequently complain of poor concentration and poor ability to focus on tasks. Persistent insomnia requires a complete history and thorough physical examination as the presence of organic causes must be ruled out. At times the sleep disturbance may be one of the presenting complaints and when further history is obtained, the other symptoms of the psychiatric disorder will be revealed. The sleep disorder may consist of initial insomnia (commonly associated with anxiety), interrupted sleep (commonly associated with substance abuse, in particular alcohol), and early awakening (commonly associated with depression). The consequences of the insomnia may be magnified by the presence of a psychiatric or medical illness. Polysomnographic studies will usually show increased stage 1 sleep and decreased stages 3 and 4 sleep. Insomniacs frequently use hypnotics, prescribed or not, with little or no beneficial effect on the insomnia, but which may result in decreased alertness the following day. However, the use of hypnotics is normally disqualifying for those who need alertness to perform safely in an aviation environment. The risk is compounded by their frequent use of sedative medication and substances (especially alcohol) to relieve their distress. Because of the chronicity and complexity of the problem in many persons, this clinical problem is best managed by a psychiatrist or a psychologist with expertise in the treatment of insomnia. This sleep disorder should not last for more than days and only if it persists beyond that will a more in-depth inquiry be required. Many sleep hygiene techniques may be helpful in alleviating brief periods of insomnia. These techniques include reduced intake of caffeine and alcohol, avoidance of heavy meals or vigorous exercise prior to sleep, a relaxing and comfortable sleep environment, and perhaps a non-stimulating warm drink prior to sleep. With short-acting medications such as temazepam (Restoril), zolpidem (Ambien), or zopiclone (Imovane), there should be a period of 8 to 12 hours after intake of a single dose of the medicine before undertaking aviation related tasks. This rhythm disruption may be related to travel over several time zones or night duty and rotating-shift schedules at the place of work.

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